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Showing all 10 practice questions with expert explanatory rationales.

Question 1 of 10

A client with a history of a tonsillectomy is being discharged. The nurse should teach the client to:

A. Gargle with warm salt water
B. Avoid cold liquids
C. Report excessive swallowing
D. Use a straw for fluids

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Report excessive swallowing

Excessive swallowing post-tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding, a serious complication requiring immediate reporting. Gargling, cold liquids, and straws may irritate the surgical site.

Question 2 of 10

The client at 35 weeks gestation is admitted with a diagnosis of vasa previa. The nurse should monitor for which complication?

A. Fetal bleeding
B. Maternal hemorrhage
C. Preterm labor
D. Fetal macrosomia

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Fetal bleeding

Vasa previa involves fetal blood vessels crossing the cervical os risking rupture and fetal bleeding during labor or membrane rupture. Maternal hemorrhage preterm labor and macrosomia are less directly related.

Question 3 of 10

The elderly client is being discharged following a total knee replacement. To facilitate independence, the nurse should instruct the client/family to do which of the following?

A. Use an elevated commode seat.
B. Remove throw rugs from the floor.
C. Install grab bars in the bathroom.
D. Wear a medic alert monitor.
E. Leave the nightlight on during resting hours.
F. Apply foot protectors to the heels.
G. Place the walker at the bedside.

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer:

Elevated commode seats (A), removing rugs (B), grab bars (C), medic alert monitors (D), nightlights (E), and bedside walkers (G) promote safety and independence. Foot protectors (F) are unrelated to mobility, and elevated side rails (H) may trap the client, increasing fall risk.

Question 4 of 10

The client at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with a diagnosis of preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). The nurse should monitor for which complication?

A. Chorioamnionitis
B. Preterm delivery
C. Fetal distress
D. All of the above

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: All of the above

PPROM increases the risk of chorioamnionitis (infection) preterm delivery (due to loss of amniotic fluid) and fetal distress (from infection or cord compression). All are potential complications requiring monitoring.

Question 5 of 10

A client is a depressed, 48-year-old salesman. A serious concern for the nurse working with depressed clients is the potential of suicide. The time that suicide is most likely to occur is:

A. In the acutely depressed state
B. When the depression starts to lift
C. In the denial phase
D. During a manic episode

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: When the depression starts to lift

When the depression starts to lift, the client is able to make a workable plan, increasing the risk of suicide.

Question 6 of 10

A client with a history of a gastrectomy is being taught about dietary management. The nurse should encourage the client to:

A. Eat six small meals a day
B. Avoid fluids with meals
C. Eat high-fiber foods
D. Take a multivitamin daily

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Eat six small meals a day

After a gastrectomy, eating six small meals a day prevents dumping syndrome by reducing gastric overload. Avoiding fluids with meals and taking vitamins are helpful, but small meals are primary.

Question 7 of 10

The nurse is caring for a client in labor. The fetal heart rate is 80 bpm with moderate variability. The most appropriate initial action by the nurse is to:

A. Notify the physician
B. Administer oxygen at 8-10 liters per minute
C. Reposition the client to her left side
D. Increase the IV fluid rate

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Reposition the client to her left side

A fetal heart rate of 80 bpm indicates bradycardia possibly due to cord compression or uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning the client to her left side improves placental perfusion and is the first action. Oxygen notifying the physician or increasing fluids are secondary.

Question 8 of 10

The client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which assessment finding is most expected?

A. Hematuria
B. Hypotension
C. Weight loss
D. Clear urine

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Hematuria

Hematuria is a hallmark of acute glomerulonephritis due to glomerular inflammation and damage, leading to blood in the urine. Hypertension, weight gain, and oliguria are more common than hypotension, weight loss, or clear urine.

Question 9 of 10

The registered nurse is making shift assignments. Which client should be assigned to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

A. A client who is a diabetic with a foot ulcer
B. A client with a deep vein thrombosis receiving intravenous heparin
C. A client being weaned from a tracheostomy
D. A post-operative cholecystectomy with a T-tube

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: A client who is a diabetic with a foot ulcer

A diabetic with a foot ulcer is stable and suitable for an LPN, who can perform wound care and monitoring. Heparin infusion (B), tracheostomy weaning (C), and T-tube management (D) require RN-level skills due to complexity and risk.

Question 10 of 10

A 5-year-old child is hospitalized for an acute illness. The nurse encourages the family to bring her favorite objects from home. What is the nurse's rationale?

A. To reduce fear of the unknown
B. To keep the child calm
C. To establish a trusting relationship
D. To prevent or minimize separation anxiety

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: To prevent or minimize separation anxiety

Favorite objects from home assist in creating a familiar setting, preventing or minimizing separation anxiety.

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