HESI LPN · HESI LPN Pharmacology · HESI Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification
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Showing all 5 practice questions with expert explanatory rationales.
A 48-year-old man with schizophrenia on thioridazine for 20 years develops bilateral facial and jaw movements and rhythmic motions of his tongue. Physical examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen are unremarkable. What is the most likely aberration on a neurotransmitter level?
Expert Explanatory Rationale
Correct Answer: Dopamine
α-Glucosidase, an enzyme that is inhibited by acarbose, is responsible for:
Expert Explanatory Rationale
Correct Answer: Carbohydrate digestion in and absorption from the gut
A novel medication to treat gastric motility disorders will act at the terminal step in the synthesis/breakdown of acetylcholine. Which of the following is the terminal step in the synthesis and release of acetylcholine?
Expert Explanatory Rationale
Correct Answer: Release of neurotransmitter
A 28-year-old man is hospitalized on the trauma service with multiple organ system failure after sustaining multiple fractures and internal injuries. His most recent CT scan of the abdomen does not reveal any visceral organ injury. He is currently on an intravenous epinephrine drip to maintain his blood pressure and heart rate. His most recent laboratory studies reveal a blood glucose level of 425 mg/dL. What is the most likely explanation of this finding?
Expert Explanatory Rationale
Correct Answer: Hepatic glycogenolysis
Which of the following is a sign of deep anesthesia?
Expert Explanatory Rationale
Correct Answer: Fall in blood pressure
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