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ATI RN · Physical Assessment · Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions

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Showing all 5 practice questions with expert explanatory rationales.

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following percussion notes would you obtain over the gastric bubble?

A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Hyperresonance
D. Flatness

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Tympany

Option B: Tympany is the expected percussion note over the gastric bubble, as it indicates the presence of gas in the stomach. This sound is characterized by a high-pitched, drum-like quality, which is typical when percussing areas filled with air, such as the gastric bubble.

Option A: Resonance is a sound produced over normal lung tissue, indicating air-filled spaces but not specifically related to the gastric bubble.

Option C: Hyperresonance occurs in cases of increased air in the thoracic cavity, such as in pneumothorax, and does not apply to the gastric bubble.

Option D: Flatness is a dull sound typically heard over solid organs or fluid, which is not representative of the gas-filled gastric bubble.

Takeaways: Understanding that tympany indicates the presence of gas is crucial for accurate physical assessment, especially when evaluating the abdomen for gastrointestinal issues and potential complications.

Question 2 of 5

You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years. Her vital signs taken by your office staff are: T 2, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain. You notice that she has some hypertensive changes in her retinas and you find mild proteinuria on a urine test in your office. You expected the BP to be higher. She is not on any medications. What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn't correlate with the other findings?

A. It is caused by an "auscultatory gap."
B. It is caused by a cuff size error.
C. It is caused by the patient's emotional state.
D. It is caused by resolution of the process which caused her retinopathy and kidney problems.

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: It is caused by resolution of the process which caused her retinopathy and kidney problems.

Option D: It is caused by resolution of the process which caused her retinopathy and kidney problems. The patient's blood pressure reading may reflect a stabilization of her condition, suggesting that the underlying causes of her hypertensive changes and proteinuria are improving. This can lead to a lower blood pressure than expected, despite the presence of these findings.

Option A: An

Question 3 of 5

A 29-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for evaluation of a headache. The tightening sensation is located all over the head and is of moderate intensity. It used to last minutes, but this time it has lasted for 5 days. He denies photophobia and nausea. He spends several hours each day at a computer monitor/keyboard. He has tried over-the-counter medication; it has dulled the pain but not taken it away. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A. Tension
B. Migraine
C. Cluster
D. Analgesic rebound

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Tension

Option A: Tension headaches are characterized by a tightening sensation across the head, moderate intensity, and absence of accompanying symptoms such as photophobia or nausea. This patient's prolonged headache duration of 5 days, combined with his computer use, aligns with the typical presentation of tension-type headaches, making this the most likely diagnosis.

Option B: Migraines typically present with unilateral pain, photophobia, and nausea, which this patient does not exhibit. The absence of these symptoms rules out migraines as a diagnosis.

Option C: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe unilateral pain, often accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as tearing or nasal congestion. The patient's symptoms do not match this pattern, eliminating cluster headaches as a possibility.

Option D: Analgesic rebound headaches occur due to overuse of pain medications, leading to a cycle of increased headache frequency. While the patient has used over-the-counter medication, the description of his headache does not suggest a rebound effect, making this option unlikely.

Takeaways: Tension headaches are the most common type of primary headache, often triggered by stress or prolonged computer use, and they require appropriate management strategies to alleviate symptoms effectively.

Question 4 of 5

An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are no hair shafts visible. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

A. Alopecia areata
B. Trichotillomania
C. Tinea capitis
D. Traction alopecia

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

Option A: Alopecia areata is the most likely diagnosis in this case, characterized by a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. The absence of hair shafts and the patient's denial of pulling or twisting her hair further support this diagnosis, indicating an autoimmune process rather than a behavioral issue or infection.

Option B: Trichotillomania involves hair pulling, which is not supported by the patient's history or examination findings. The absence of any evidence of hair manipulation rules out this diagnosis.

Option C: Tinea capitis typically presents with scaling, inflammation, and broken hair shafts, which are not observed in this patient. The clear demarcation and lack of other symptoms make this diagnosis unlikely.

Option D: Traction alopecia results from prolonged tension on hair follicles, often seen with tight hairstyles. The patient does not wear her hair in braids, and the presentation does not match this type of hair loss.

Takeaways: Alopecia areata presents as a round patch of hair loss without inflammation or scaling, distinguishing it from other conditions like trichotillomania and tinea capitis, which require differential diagnosis and management based on clinical presentation.

Question 5 of 5

For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate?

A. A new patient with the chief complaint of "I sprained my ankle"
B. An established patient with the chief complaint of "I have an upper respiratory infection"
C. A new patient with the chief complaint of "I am here to establish care"
D. A new patient with the chief complaint of "I cut my hand"

Expert Explanatory Rationale

Correct Answer: A new patient with the chief complaint of "I am here to establish care"

Option C: A new patient with the chief complaint of 'I am here to establish care' requires a comprehensive health history to assess their overall health status, identify risk factors, and establish a baseline for future care. This process is essential for developing a personalized care plan and ensuring continuity of care.

Option A: A new patient with a sprained ankle primarily needs a focused assessment related to the injury, not a comprehensive health history, as the visit is specific to a single acute issue.

Option B: An established patient with an upper respiratory infection requires a targeted evaluation of their current symptoms rather than a comprehensive health history, as their previous records should already provide necessary background information.

Option D: A new patient with a cut on their hand necessitates a focused assessment on the injury itself, which does not warrant a comprehensive health history unless there are underlying concerns that need to be addressed.

Takeaways: Establishing care for a new patient necessitates a comprehensive health history to evaluate overall health and risk factors, which is crucial for developing effective treatment plans and ensuring continuity of care.

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